Department of English - Platform of English Literature and Linguistics.
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Is there any difference between "The telephone was thought to be just for rich people" and "The telephone was thought to have been just for rich people"?
To be is used to describe things in there current state. Have been suggests it occurred in the past and may or may not happen in the present. To “have been” is the past participle of “to be”.
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Is there any difference between "The telephone was thought to be just for rich people" and "The telephone was thought to have been just for rich people"?
The second sentence is inaccurate unless the word telephone be (telephones) because we only use (have) with the plural and not singular, and (was) should be (were) as well.
How do we define the word "the"?
According to the dictionaries, the word “the” is defined as follows : 1. represents a whole species or class."they placed the African elephant on their endangered list"used with an adjective to refer to those people who are of the type described."the unemployed"used with an adjective to refer to somethi…
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26 Contributors
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, Admin - TRY DOT FULFIL English Literature and Linguistics
, M.A. Languages and Linguistics & Literature, University of Louisiana at Lafayette (2010)
, I speak, read and write in it.
, Linguist, Analyses, Psychology, Structures, Transactions, iQ
, knows English
, Deputy Online Editor, Vanguard Newspapers at Vanguard Media Limited, Apapa Lagos (2006-present)
, former Nurse Aide/Stay Home Mother/ (1997-2010)
, knows English
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It is a platform for the students of English Literature. Easy notes of linguistics and literature will be published here.